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QUESTION 41
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.) Continue reading →

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.) Continue reading →

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QUESTION 21
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A.    802.1d
B.    VTP
C.    802.1q
D.    STP
E.    SAP

Answer: AD
Explanation:
This question is to examine the STP protocol.
STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.
802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN.
SAP is a concept of the OSI model.

QUESTION 22
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A.    32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B.    32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C.    32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D.    32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

A.    More collision domains will be created.
B.    IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C.    More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D.    An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Each VLAN creates its own broadcast domain. Since this is a full duplex switch, each port is a separate collision domain.

QUESTION 24
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
C.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
D.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
their size.
E.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
F.    VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
G.    Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Benefits of VLANs
VLAN is a network structure which allows users to communicate while in different locations by sharing one multicast domain and a single broadcast. They provide numerous networking benefits and have become popular in the market. For instance, it helps reduce administrative costs when users are geographically dispersed.
1. Inexpensive
The popularity of VLANs is due to the fact that changes, adds, and moves can be attained simply by making necessary configurations on the VLAN port. Time-consuming, re-addressing, and host reconfigurations is now a thing of the past, because network configuration can be made at ease when need arises.
2. Better management
A VLAN typically solve the scalability issues that exist in a large network by breaking the main domain into several VLAN groups or smaller broadcast configurations, thereby encourage better control of multicast traffic as well as broadcast domains.
3. Improves network security
High-security can be positioned in different VLAN groups to ensure that non-members cannot receive their broadcasts. On the other hand, a router is added and workgroups relocated into centralized locations.
4. Enhances performance
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
5. Segment multiple networks
VLANs are typically used to achieve multiple purposes. They are popularly used to reduce broadcast traffic. Each VLAN creates a separate, smaller broadcast domain.
6. Better administration
VLANs facilitate grouping of multiple geographical stations. When VLAN users move to another physical location, the network does not have to be configured.

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

A.    802.3ad
B.    802.1w
C.    802.1D
D.    802.1Q

Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    They increase the size of collision domains.
B.    They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C.    They can enhance network security.
D.    They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E.    They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F.    They simplify switch administration.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> . VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the network -> .
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision domains ->
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> . VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration ->

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

271

A.    SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B.    SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
E.    SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Answer: C
Explanation:
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure). In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default gateway. This default gateway is used to forward traffic originating from the switch only, not to forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.

QUESTION 28
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A.    when they receive a special token
B.    when there is a carrier
C.    when they detect no other devices are sending
D.    when the medium is idle
E.    when the server grants access

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 29
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml#states

QUESTION 30
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

A.    show interface trunk
B.    show interface interface
C.    show ip interface brief
D.    show interface vlan
E.    show interface switchport

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

11

A.    Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B.    Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C.    Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D.    Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E.    Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F.    Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to destination.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

21

A.    With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B.    With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a
unique IP subnet.
C.    With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate
with each other.
D.    With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate
with each other.
E.    With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.128 the hosts vary from x.x.x.0 – x.x.x.127 & x.x.x.128- x.x.x.255,so the IP Addresses of 2 hosts fall in different subnets so each interface needs an IP an address so that they can communicate each other.
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.0 the 2 specified hosts fall in different subnets so they need a Layer 3 device to communicate.
If Subnet Mask is 255.255.254.0 the 2 specified hosts are in same subnet so are in network address and can be accommodated in same Layer 2 domain and can communicate with each other directly using the Layer 2 address.

QUESTION 3
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

A.    transport
B.    network
C.    presentation
D.    session
E.    application

Answer: E
Explanation:
This question is to examine the OSI reference model. The Application layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner and determining whether sufficient resources for the intended communication exist.

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

41

A.    252
B.    253
C.    254
D.    255

Answer: B
Explanation:
From the CCNA ICND2 Exam book: “Routers decrement the TTL by 1 every time they forward a packet; if a router decrements the TTL to 0, it throws away the packet. This prevents packets from rotating forever.” I want to make it clear that before the router forwards a packet, the TTL is still remain the same. For example in the topology above, pings to S0/1 and S0/0 of Router 2 have the same TTL.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

A.    A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B.    A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C.    A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D.    A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E.    A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F.    A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

61

A.     62
B.     63
C.     64
D.     65
E.     66
F.     67

Answer: A
Explanation:
When a host needs to reach a device on another subnet, the ARP cache entry will be that of the Ethernet address of the local router (default gateway) for the physical MAC address. The destination IP address will not change, and will be that of the remote host (HostB).

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

A.    application
B.    presentation
C.    session
D.    transport
E.    internet
F.    data link

Answer: A
Explanation:
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.

QUESTION 8
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A.    This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B.    This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C.    This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D.    This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E.    This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Modern Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).

QUESTION 9
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

A.    session
B.    transport
C.    network
D.    data link
E.    physical

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Data Link layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network topology, and flow control. The Data Link layer formats the message into pieces, each called a data frame, and adds a customized header containing the hardware destination and source address. Protocols Data Unit (PDU) on Datalink layer is called frame. According to this question the frame is damaged and discarded which will happen at the Data Link layer.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

A.    The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
B.    The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C.    Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D.    Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
E.    The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
The Application Layer (Layer 7) refers to communications services to applications and is the interface between the network and the application. Examples include. Telnet, HTTP, FTP, Internet browsers, NFS, SMTP gateways, SNMP, X.400 mail, and FTAM.
The Presentation Layer (Layer 6) defining data formats, such as ASCII text, EBCDIC text, binary, BCD, and JPEG. Encryption also is defined as a presentation layer service. Examples include. JPEG, ASCII, EBCDIC, TIFF, GIF, PICT, encryption, MPEG, and MIDI.
The Session Layer (Layer 5) defines how to start, control, and end communication sessions. This includes the control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed. This allows the presentation layer to have a seamless view of an incoming stream of data. The presentation layer can be presented with data if all flows occur in some cases. Examples include. RPC, SQL, NFS, NetBios names, AppleTalk ASP, and DECnet SCP
The Transport Layer (Layer 4) defines several functions, including the choice of protocols. The most important Layer 4 functions are error recovery and flow control. The transport layer may provide for retransmission, i.e., error recovery, and may use flow control to prevent unnecessary congestion by attempting to send data at a rate that the network can accommodate, or it might not, depending on the choice of protocols. Multiplexing of incoming data for different flows to applications on the same host is also performed. Reordering of the incoming data stream when packets arrive out of order is included. Examples include. TCP, UDP, and SPX.
The Network Layer (Layer 3) defines end-to-end delivery of packets and defines logical addressing to accomplish this. It also defines how routing works and how routes are learned; and how to fragment a packet into smaller packets to accommodate media with smaller maximum transmission unit sizes. Examples include. IP, IPX, AppleTalk DDP, and ICMP. Both IP and IPX define logical addressing, routing, the learning of routing information, and end-to-end delivery rules. The IP and IPX protocols most closely match the OSI network layer (Layer 3) and are called Layer 3 protocols because their functions most closely match OSI’s Layer 3.
The Data Link Layer (Layer 2) is concerned with getting data across one particular link or medium.
The data link protocols define delivery across an individual link. These protocols are necessarily concerned with the type of media in use. Examples includE. IEEE 802.3/802.2, HDLC, Frame Relay, PPP, FDDI, ATM, and IEEE 802.5/802.2.

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QUESTION 376
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2? Continue reading →

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QUESTION 366
What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)

A.    It allows switches to read frame tags.
B.    It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.
C.    It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.
D.    It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.
E.    It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment. Continue reading →

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QUESTION 356
Which pairing reflects a correct protocol-and-metric relationship?

A.    OSPF and mumber of hops and reliability
B.    EIGRP and link cost
C.    IS-IS and delay and reliability
D.    RIPv2 and number of hops Continue reading →

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QUESTION 346
On a network of one department, there are four PCs connected to a switch, as shown in the following figure: After the Switch1 restarts. Host A ( the host on the left ) sends the first frame to Host C (the host on the right). What the first thing should the switch do?

Continue reading →

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QUESTION 336
The access control list shown in the graphic has been applied to the Ethernet interface of router R1 using the ip access-group 101 in command.
Which of the following Telnet sessions will be blocked by this ACL? (Choose two.) Continue reading →

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QUESTION 326
Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled?

A.    Set the SSID value in the client software to public.
B.    Configure open authentication on the AP and the client.
C.    Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.
D.    Configured MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP. Continue reading →