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QUESTION 31
Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?
A. network-based IDS
B. host-based IDS
C. application-based IDS
D. firewall-based IDS
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QUESTION 31
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation decided to move all email to a cloud computing environment.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) was told to research the risk involved in this environment.
Which of the following measures should be implemented to minimize the risk of hosting email in the cloud?
A. Remind users that all emails with sensitive information need be encrypted and physically
inspect the cloud computing.
B. Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and obtain an NDA and an SLA from the
cloud provider.
C. Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and remind users to encrypt all emails that
contain sensitive information.
D. Obtain an NDA from the cloud provider and remind users that all emails with sensitive
information need be encrypted.
Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Due to a new regulation, a company has to increase active monitoring of security-related events to 24 hours a day.
The security staff only has three full time employees that work during normal business hours. Instead of hiring new security analysts to cover the remaining shifts necessary to meet the monitoring requirement, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has hired a Managed Security Service (MSS) to monitor events.
Which of the following should the company do to ensure that the chosen MSS meets expectations?
A. Develop a memorandum of understanding on what the MSS is responsible to provide.
B. Create internal metrics to track MSS performance.
C. Establish a mutually agreed upon service level agreement.
D. Issue a RFP to ensure the MSS follows guidelines.
Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A system administrator needs to develop a policy for when an application server is no longer needed.
Which of the following policies would need to be developed?
A. Backup policy
B. De-provisioning policy
C. Data retention policy
D. Provisioning policy
Answer: C
QUESTION 34
After a security incident, an administrator revokes the SSL certificate for their web server www.company.com.
Later, users begin to inform the help desk that a few other servers are generating certificate errors: ftp.company.com, mail.company.com, and partners.company.com.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this?
A. Each of the servers used the same EV certificate.
B. The servers used a wildcard certificate.
C. The web server was the CA for the domain.
D. Revoking a certificate can only be done at the domain level.
Answer: B
QUESTION 35
A wholesaler has decided to increase revenue streams by selling direct to the public through an on-line system.
Initially this will be run as a short term trial and if profitable, will be expanded and form part of the day to day business.
The risk manager has raised two main business risks for the initial trial:
1. IT staff has no experience with establishing and managing secure on-line credit card processing.
2. An internal credit card processing system will expose the business to additional compliance requirements.
Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy?
A. Transfer the risks to another internal department, who have more resources to accept the
risk.
B. Accept the risks and log acceptance in the risk register.
Once the risks have been accepted close them out.
C. Transfer the initial risks by outsourcing payment processing to a third party service provider.
D. Mitigate the risks by hiring additional IT staff with the appropriate experience and
certifications.
Answer: C
QUESTION 36
An administrator notices the following file in the Linux server’s /tmp directory.
-rwsr-xr-x. 4 root root 234223 Jun 6 22:52 bash*
Which of the following should be done to prevent further attacks of this nature?
A. Never mount the /tmp directory over NFS
B. Stop the rpcidmapd service from running
C. Mount all tmp directories nosuid, noexec
D. Restrict access to the /tmp directory
Answer: C
QUESTION 37
Company GHI consolidated their network distribution so twelve network VLANs would be available over dual fiber links to a modular L2 switch in each of the company’s six IDFs.
The IDF modular switches have redundant switch fabrics and power supplies.
Which of the following threats will have the GREATEST impact on the network and what is the appropriate remediation step?
A. Threat: 802.1q trunking attack
Remediation: Enable only necessary VLANs for each port
B. Threat: Bridge loop
Remediation: Enable spanning tree
C. Threat: VLAN hopping
Remediation: Enable only necessary VLANs for each port
D. Threat: VLAN hopping
Remediation: Enable ACLs on the IDF switch
Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Within an organization, there is a known lack of governance for solution designs.
As a result there are inconsistencies and varying levels of quality for the artifacts that are produced.
Which of the following will help BEST improve this situation?
A. Ensure that those producing solution artifacts are reminded at the next team meeting that
quality is important.
B. Introduce a peer review process that is mandatory before a document can be officially
made final.
C. Introduce a peer review and presentation process that includes a review board with representation from relevant disciplines.
D. Ensure that appropriate representation from each relevant discipline approves of the solution documents before official approval.
Answer: C
QUESTION 39
An administrator of a secure web server has several clients with top security clearance and prefers security over performance.
By default, which of the following cipher suites would provide strong security, but at the same time the worst performance?
A. 3DES-SHA
B. DES-MD5
C. Camellia-SHA
D. RC4-MD5
Answer: A
QUESTION 40
Corporate policy states that the systems administrator should not be present during system audits.
The security policy that states this is:
A. Separation of duties.
B. Mandatory vacation.
C. Non-disclosure agreement.
D. Least privilege.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 31
In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
A. Full operational test
B. Walk-through test
C. Penetration test
D. Paper test Continue reading →
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QUESTION 71
What is the function of Band Steering?
A. Balancing clients across APs on different channels within the same band
B. Encourages clients, 5GHz capable, to connect on the 5GHz spectrum
C. Coordinate access to the same channel across multiple APs
D. Enables selection of 20 vs. 40 MHz mode of operation per band
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QUESTION 31
Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)
A. Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
B. Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
C. Because the technology led change is too expensive.
D. Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video.
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QUESTION 31
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)
A. Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B. Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C. Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D. Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E. Know your audience and what is of interest to them.
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QUESTION 31
Howmany simultaneous HDcalls can be supported on a Cisco MeetingServer 1000?
A. 24
B. 96
C. 108
D. 48 Continue reading →
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QUESTION 31
Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?
A. file reputation
B. attack chain weaving
C. breach hunting
D. file sandboxing
E. machine learning
Answer: B
QUESTION 32
How does the Device Trajectory feature work?
A. It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
B. It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
C. It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
D. It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
E. It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.
Answer: E
QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a customer who is experiencing access complications due to too many policies and too many user groups?
A. Cisco AnyConnect
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. Cisco ISE
D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
E. Cisco site-to-site VPN
F. Cisco SIO
Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?
A. Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality into one product.
B. Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
C. Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.
D. Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.
Answer: B
QUESTION 35
Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.
B. It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
C. Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
D. It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
E. The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 36
Which statement about wireless intrusion prevention and rogue access point detection is true?
A. A local mode access point provides power to wireless clients.
B. A monitor mode access point performs background scanning in order to detect rogue access points.
C. A monitor mode access point is dedicated to scanning (listen-only).
D. A monitor mode access point can distribute a white list of all known access points.
E. Any access point that broadcasts the same RF group name or is part of the same mobility group is considered to be a rogue access point.
Answer: C
QUESTION 37
Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer’s inability to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources, while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. Cisco Data Center Management Policy Implementation
C. Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
D. Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
E. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
F. Cisco Secure Data Center
G. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)
A. URL filtering
B. retrospective security
C. attack chain weaving
D. breach hunting
E. trajectory
F. behavioral indications of compromise
Answer: AB
QUESTION 39
Which option best describes granular app control using application visibility and control?
A. blocking harmful sites based on content, such as pokerstars.com
B. blocking World of Warcraft but allowing Google+
C. blocking Facebook games but allowing Facebook posts
D. blocking Twitter to increase employee productivity
Answer: C
QUESTION 40
The first phase of email security analyzes “who-what-where-when-how” information and context-based policies during which component of threat detection?
A. antivirus defense
B. advanced malware protection for email
C. outbreak filters
D. data loss prevention
E. encryption
F. antispam defense
Answer: F
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QUESTION 71
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?
A. The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B. The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C. The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D. The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.
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QUESTION 31
Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?
A. The default number of attempts is 100.
B. A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
C. A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
D. A value of 3 means that if a user fails to authenticate,the user is disconnected after three retries. Continue reading →