[May 2018] Free Updated Lead2pass 2V0-622 Exam Dumps Download 399q

Free Version Lead2pass VMware 2V0-622 PDF Dumps With Exam Questions Download:

https://www.lead2pass.com/2v0-622.html

QUESTION 21
To reduce the attack vectors for a virtual machine, which two settings should an administrator set to false? (Choose two.)

A.    ideX:Y.present
B.    serial.present
C.    ideX:Y.enabled
D.    serial.enabled

Continue reading →

[May 2018] Free Download Of Lead2pass 2V0-621D Real Exam Questions

100% Pass 2V0-621D Exam By Training Lead2pass New VCE And PDF Dumps:

https://www.lead2pass.com/2v0-621d.html

QUESTION 21
To reduce the attack vectors for a virtual machine, which two settings should an administrator set to false? (Choose two.)

A.    ideX:Y.present
B.    serial.present
C.    ideX:Y.enabled
D.    serial.enabled

Answer: AB
Reference: http://jackiechen.org/2012/10/05/vsphere-5-0-security-hardening-recommended-vm-settings-configure-script/

QUESTION 22
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual machines (VMs)? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable hardware devices
B.    Disable unexposed features
C.    Disable VMtools devices
D.    Disable VM Template features

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Make sure you review hardware devices and disable the unnecessary ones. Also disable unexposed features before increasing virtual machines security.

QUESTION 23
Which password meets ESXi 6.x host password requirements?

A.    8kMVnn2x!
B.    zNgtnJBA2
C.    Nvgt34kn44
D.    !b74wr

Answer: A
Explanation:
A valid password requires a mix of upper and lower case letters, digits, and other characters. You can use a 7-character long password with characters from at least three of these four classes, or a 6-character long password containing characters from all the classes. A password that begins with an upper case letter and ends with a numerical digit does not count towards the number of character classes used. It is recommended that the password does not contain the username.
A passphrase requires at least 3 words, can be 8 to 40 characters long, and must contain enough different characters.
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 24
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:

– Minimum of 21 characters
– Minimum of 2 words

Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?

A.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2

Answer: B
Explanation:
To force a specific password complexity and disable all others, replace the number with the word with disabled. For example, to force passwords containing characters from all four-character classes: password requisite /lib/security/$ISA/pam_passwdqc.so retry=3 min= disabled,disabled,disabled,disabled,7
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 25
Which Advanced Setting should be created for the vCenter Server to change the expiration policy of the vpxuser password?

A.    VimPasswordExpirationInDays
B.    VimExpirationPasswordDays
C.    VimPassExpirationInDays
D.    VimPasswordRefreshDays

Answer: A
Explanation:
vCenter Server creates the vpxuser account on each ESX/ESXi host that it manages. The password for each vpxuser account is auto-generated when an ESX/ESXi host is added. The password is updated by default every 30 days.
To modify default password settings:
Connect vSphere Client to vCenter Server.
Click Administration > vCenter Server Settings > Advanced Settings. Scroll to the parameter VirtualCenter.VimPasswordExpirationInDays and change the value from the default.
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1016736

QUESTION 26
An administrator has been instructed to secure existing virtual machines in vCenter Server.
Which two actions should the administrator take to secure these virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable native remote management services
B.    Restrict Remote Console access
C.    Use Independent Non-Persistent virtual disks
D.    Prevent use of Independent Non-Persistent virtual disks

Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/VMW-TWP-vSPHR-SECRTY-HRDNG-USLET-101-WEB-1.pdf (page 11, see the tables)

QUESTION 27
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?

A.    isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B.    isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C.    isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D.    isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false

Answer: A
Explanation:
It is configured on a per-VM basis. You can increase the guest operating system variable memory limit if large amounts of custom information are being stored in the configuration file. You can also prevent guests from writing any name-value pairs to the configuration file. To do so, use the following setting, and set it to ‘true’.

QUESTION 28
Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere certificates? (Choose two.)

A.    ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL certificate and reissue one from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA).
B.    ESXi host upgrades preserve the existing SSL certificate.
C.    ESXi hosts have assigned SSL certificates from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) during install.
D.    ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL certificates by default.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Of course, ESXi host upgrades preserve existing SSL certificate and it also have assigned SSL certificates from VMCA during the installation process.

QUESTION 29
Which three options are available for replacing vCenter Server Security Certificates? (Choose three.)

A.    Replace with Certificates signed by the VMware Certificate Authority.
B.    Make VMware Certificate Authority an Intermediate Certificate Authority.
C.    Do not use VMware Certificate Authority, provision your own Certificates.
D.    Use SSL Thumbprint mode.
E.    Replace all VMware Certificate Authority issued Certificates with self-signed Certificates.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
There are three options for replace vCenter server security certificates. You can replace it with certificates signed by VMware certificate authority; you can make the VMCA an intermediate certificate authority. Likewise, you can provision your own certificates.

QUESTION 30
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:

Incorrect Username/Password

The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:

– Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
– Domain: vmware.com
– Alias: VMWARE
– Default Domain: Yes

Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A.    Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B.    Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C.    Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D.    Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
The possible explanation for this error might be that the users are typing password incorrectly or they are in a forest with has only 1-way trust. You need 2-way trust to get the credentials accepted.

2V0-621D dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/2v0-621d.html

Large amount of free 2V0-621D exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDa2xCVTdHZXoxYjA

[May 2018] Free Version Lead2pass VMware 2V0-602 PDF Dumps With Exam Questions Download 313q

Lead2pass 100% Valid 2V0-602 Exam Questions PDF Free Download:

https://www.lead2pass.com/2v0-602.html

QUESTION 21
Which file format supports the exchange of virtual appliances across products and platforms?

A.    FAT32
B.    OVF
C.    VMDK
D.    NTFS

Continue reading →

[May 2018] Free Downloading 1Y0-311 Exam Dumps PDF From Lead2pass 85q

Free Lead2pass 1Y0-311 PDF Download 100% Pass Exam 1Y0-311:

https://www.lead2pass.com/1y0-311.html

QUESTION 41
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator configured the audio quality to low in a Citrix Group Policy Object and applied it to all the XenApp servers in the farm. A few weeks later, another administrator from the team created an OU Group Policy Object and set the audio quality to high.
The administrator applied the policy object to the OU that contains all the XenApp servers in the farm.
What would be the audio quality for all the XenApp servers using precedence for the resultant policy?

A.    The audio quality will change every week after the weekly restart phase.
B.    The audio on all the XenApp servers in the farm will be set to low quality.
C.    The audio on all the XenApp servers in the farm will be set to high quality.
D.    Some servers will be set to use low quality audio, and the others will be set to use high quality audio. Continue reading →

[April 2018] 100% Valid Lead2pass Citrix 1Y0-202 New Questions Free Version 314q

Lead2pass 2018 100% Valid 1Y0-202 Dumps Guarantee 100% Pass 1Y0-202 Certification Exam:

https://www.lead2pass.com/1y0-202.html

QUESTION 51
Scenario: Users of the Finance group lost access to their local drive through their desktop-hosted applications. Due to this issue, those users missed a critical deadline. Now management has requested that a Citrix Administrator provide a report of recent changes to the environment.

Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?

A.    Event logs
B.    StoreFront
C.    Citrix Studio
D.    Citrix Director Continue reading →

[April 2018] Lead2pass Offering Free PC0-001 Dumps Files For Free Downloading By PC0-001 Exam Candidates 547q

Lead2pass Provides Free PC0-001 Exam Dumps PDF:

https://www.lead2pass.com/pc0-001.html

QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

PC0-001 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/pc0-001.html

Large amount of free PC0-001 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=11M5dS8gpLvodbUa9SQ7-DSS7io5jAsp-

[April 2018] Lead2pass Latest NSE7_EFW Free Dumps Guarantee NSE7_EFW Certification Exam 100% Success 59q

Lead2pass Latest NSE7_EFW PDF Guarantee 100% Pass NSE7_EFW Exam:

https://www.lead2pass.com/nse7-efw.html

QUESTION 1
An LDAP user cannot authenticate against a FortiGate device. Examine the real time debug output shown in the exhibit when the user attempted the authentication; then answer the question below. Continue reading →

[April 2018] Free Share Of Lead2pass MB2-715 VCE And PDF Dumps 97q

Free Sharing Of Microsoft MB2-715 Brain Dumps From Lead2pass:

https://www.lead2pass.com/mb2-715.html

QUESTION 1
You are a system administrator responsible for maintaining Microsoft Dynamics 365 at your company.
Management wants a new application built that allows them to manage requests for vendors.
You need to use the app designer to build the new application on Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What are three items that can be configured in the app designer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    a site map for the new app
B.    a business rule for the new app
C.    a role to be used by the new app
D.    a dashboard for the new app
E.    a workflow for the new app

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
You are a system administrator for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint online environment.
You need to prevent a user from accessing Microsoft SharePoint while in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do?

A.    Change the security settings for SharePoint Site on the users security role.
B.    Change the security settings for Document Generation on the user’s security role.
C.    Change the security settings for Enable or Disable User on the user’s security role.
D.    Change the security settings for Document Template on the user’s security role.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which scenario is the Import Data Wizard method recommended for Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A.    a large company with data on-premises that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX and has it staged in Microsoft Azure
B.    a small company that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, Business edition and wants to migrate to Enterprise edition
C.    a large company with Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application data that is stored on the same data center as Microsoft Dynamics 365
D.    a small company with data on-premises that has never used a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-US/dynamics/crm-customer-center/import-accounts-leads-or-other-data.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are the technology director for a large company that plans to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You are researching the type of licensing that is required for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which Microsoft Dynamics 365 App is only available with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Plan 2?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Operations
C.    Sales
D.    Field Service

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/pricing

QUESTION 5
You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period.
You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new.
What should you do?

A.    Create a production instance in a new tenant
B.    Create a trial in a new tenant
C.    Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D.    Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722373.aspx

QUESTION 6
You are a system administrator for an organization with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment (hosted in a European data center) and Active Directory Federated Services on-premises. Your organization acquires a new company in the US that is using Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online in its own tenant.
The US company can continue to use their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online instance as is.
All users need to be on the European Active Directory, but they need to use an instance close to them.
What should you do?

A.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance the US region.
B.    Keep the US tenant and federate Active Directory with both the US and European teanants.
C.    Keep the US tenant, and federate Active Directory with only the European tenant.
D.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance to the European region.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator.
Microsoft schedules an update for your instance of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two scenarios will occur? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    If you have not approved the update before the scheduled date, the instance will become inactive until approved or rescheduled.
B.    If you have approved the update, the instance will update on the scheduled date.
C.    The instance will update on the scheduled date, regardless of approval.
D.    If you have not approved the update, the instance will not update on the scheduled date.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users have varying requirements for which data they need to take offline.
You need to ensure that your users have access to the correct data offline.
What should you do?

A.    Instruct users on how to configure the offline filter.
B.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronization filters.
C.    Create one set of offline filters and distribute those.
D.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronized fields.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/choose-records-to-work-with-offline-in-dynamics-365-for-outlook.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are in the initial planning phase of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The customer wants to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
The customer is about to make a decision on whether Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 should be on-premises, online, or a hybrid.
You need to advise the customer on how their decision affects their ability to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook,
What should you tell them?

A.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is online only, so both Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 must be online.
B.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Exchange to be online, but Microsoft Dynamics 365 can be on-premises.
C.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Dynamics 365 to be online, but Microsoft Exchange can be on-premises.
D.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook supports both online-to-online, on-premises to on-premises, and hybrid environments.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn946901.aspx

QUESTION 10
You are a deployment manager for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your company decides to implement Microsoft OneNote, and you need to integrate it to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Turn on Microsoft OneNote integration.
B.    Turn on Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C.    Turn on Microsoft Office 365 Groups integration.
D.    Turn on server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365.aspx

MB2-715 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/mb2-715.html

Large amount of free MB2-715 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZFBnczc3eDhhN00

[April 2018] Free Lead2pass Juniper JN0-347 PDF Dumps With New Update Exam Questions 140q

Free Lead2pass Juniper JN0-347 PDF Dumps With The Latest Update Exam Questions:

https://www.lead2pass.com/jn0-347.html

QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

Answer: AD
Explanation:
When DHCP snooping is enabled, the lease information from the server is used to create the DHCP snooping table, also known as the binding table.
The table shows current IP-MAC bindings, as well as lease time, type of binding, names of associated VLANs, and associated interface.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos13.2/topics/concept/port-security-dhcp-snooping-els.html

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows the access port to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
B.    It allows you to apply independent CoS actions to data and voice packets.
C.    It can be used with LLDP-MED to dynamically assign the VLAN ID value to IP phones.
D.    It allows trunk ports to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
E.    It must use the same VLAN ID as data traffic on a defined interface.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A (not D): The Voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs.
B: To assign differentiated priority to Voice traffic, it is recommended that class of service (CoS) is configured prior to enabling the voice VLAN feature. Typically, voice traffic is treated with a higher priority than common user traffic. Without differentiated treatment through CoS, all traffic, regardless of the type, is subject to the same delay during times of congestion.
C: In conjunction with Voice VLAN, you can utilize Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED) to provide the voice VLAN ID and 802.1p values to the attached IP phones. This dynamic method associates each IP phone with the appropriate voice VLAN and assigns the necessary802.1p values, which are used by CoS, to differentiate service for voice traffic within a network.
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11062&actp=search

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about aggregate routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A.    An active route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
B.    Only one aggregate route can be configured for each destination prefix.
C.    An aggregate route has a default next hop of an IP address.
D.    An aggregate route always shows as active in the routing table.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
You can configure only one aggregate route for each destination prefix.

QUESTION 4
Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    firewall

Answer: A
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to reduce or eliminate collisions.
By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collision_domain

QUESTION 5
What are two types of IS-IS PDUs? (Choose two.)

A.    open PDU
B.    VRF PDU
C.    hello PDU
D.    link-state PDU

Answer: CD
Explanation:
IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs broadcast to discover the identity of neighboring IS-IS systems and to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2 intermediate systems. Link-state PDUs contain information about the state of adjacencies to neighboring IS-IS systems.
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/is-is-routing-overview.html

QUESTION 6
What are three extended BGP communities? (Choose three.)

A.    Origin: 172.16.100.100:100
B.    domain-id: 192.168.1.1:555
C.    extend:454:350
D.    172.16.90.100:888
E.    target:65000:65000

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
The BGP extended communities attribute format has three fields:
type: administrator: assigned-number. type is the type of extended community and can be either the 16-bit numerical identifier of a specific BGP extended community or one of these types: origin– Identifies where the route originated.
domain-id– Identifies the OSPF domain from which the route originated.
target– Identifies the destination to which the route is going.
bandwidth– Sets up the bandwidth extended community. Specifying link bandwidth allows you to distribute traffic unequally among different BGP paths.
rt-import– Identifies the route to install in the routing table.
src -as– Identifies the AS from which the route originated.
You must specify an AS number, not an IP address.
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/policy-defining-bgp-communities-and-extended-communities-for-use-in-routing-policy-match-conditions.html

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
B.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
C.    The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS.
D.    The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
In IS-IS, deterministic DIS election makes the possibility of predicting the router that will be elected as DIS from the same set of routers.
The router advertising the numerically highest priority wins, with numerically highest MAC address, also called a Subnetwork Point of Attachment (SNPA), breaking the tie.
https://kb.juniper.net/kb/documents/public/junos/StudyGuides/Ch4_from_JNCIP_studyguide.pdf

QUESTION 8
Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch-A.
Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet.
Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table.
What are three explanations for this state? (Choose three.)

A.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port.
B.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up.
C.    The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated IRB.
D.    The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1.
E.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: MAC learning messages received with errors include:
Interface down–The MAC address is learned on an interface that is down.
C: To configure the MAC address of an IRB interface Etc.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/reference/command-summary/show-ethernet-switching-statistics-mac-learning-ex-series.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos16.1/topics/example/example-configuring-mac-address-of-an-irb-interface.html

QUESTION 9
Router-1 and Router-2 need to connect through the Internet using a tunneling technology.
Hosts that are connected to Router-1 and Router-2 will be sending traffic up to 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size is supported across the path is 1520 bytes.
Which tunneling technology will allow this communication to take place?

A.    GRE tunnel
B.    IPsec VPN transport mode
C.    IPsec VPN tunnel mode
D.    IP-IP tunnel

Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and IP-in-IP (IPIP) are two rather similar tunneling mechanisms which are often confused. In terms of less overhead, the GRE header is 24 bytes and an IP header is 20 bytes.

QUESTION 10
What are two interarea OSPF LSA types? (Choose two.)

A.    Type-4 ASBR summary LSAs
B.    Type 3 summary LSAs
C.    Type 1 router LSAs
D.    Type 2 network LSAs

Answer: AB

JN0-347 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/jn0-347.html

Large amount of free JN0-347 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1zz9Rqxt1_dV6MXCzokBpQvuInCeVN-EX

[April 2018] Lead2pass Exam Collection ITIL-Foundation Dumps And ITIL-Foundation New Questions 547q

Lead2pass Free ITIL-Foundation Exam Dumps With PDF And VCE Download:

https://www.lead2pass.com/itil-foundation.html

QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Continue reading →